Question 1:
During a rapid sequence intubation, you attempt to inflate the endotracheal tube (ETT) cuff, but it does not inflate. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
- A) Check the ETT cuff for a leak
- B) Check the pilot balloon valve
- C) Replace the ETT with another one
- D) Use a larger syringe to inflate the cuff
Correct Answer: C) Replace the ETT with another one
Explanation: If the ETT cuff fails to inflate during a rapid sequence intubation, it indicates a likely defect in the tube or its components. Replacing the ETT promptly ensures airway patency and avoids delays that could lead to complications. Checking for leaks or trying to inflate further wastes valuable time in an emergency scenario.
Question 2:
While providing routine care to a patient, you hear gurgling sounds coming from the patient’s mouth. You notice the ETT cuff is deflated, and despite inflating it with a 10 cc syringe, the sound persists. What is the most likely cause?- A) Excessive secretion above the cuff
- B) ETT cuff is busted
- C) Incorrect positioning of the ETT
- D) Malfunctioning syringe
Question 3:
In the case of ventricular fibrillation (VF) identified on an ECG, what is the recommended initial management?- A) Cardioversion
- B) Epinephrine
- C) Atropine
- D) Defibrillation
Question 4:
You obtained a venous blood gas (VBG) sample from a peripheral line, and the electrolyte values were all below normal. What is the most likely cause?- A) Contains arterial blood
- B) Sample is diluted
- C) Hemolysis
- D) Incorrect sample handling
Question 5:
The physician verbally orders you to change the patient’s tracheostomy tube from an unfenestrated to a fenestrated tube. What is your action?- A) Change it
- B) Ask the nurse to write the order
- C) Refuse to change
- D) Write down the order and ask the physician to confirm it
Question 6:
You are teaching your patient how to use a pressurized Metered-Dose Inhaler (pMDI). What teaching method will you use?- A) Only teach the patient’s family
- B) Teach-back method
- C) One-teach method
- D) Group teaching session
Question 7:
You want to suction your patient’s airway. How do you ensure that the suction system is working properly?- A) Occluding the tip of the suction catheter
- B) Occluding the thumb port
- C) Occluding the tip of the vacuum tubing and watching the pressure reading
- D) Checking the suction canister for leaks
Question 8:
A premature baby is presenting with Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS). What is the appropriate management involving surfactant replacement therapy?- A) Increase oxygen delivery
- B) Administer calfactant
- C) Adjust ventilator settings
- D) Provide inhaled nitric oxide
Question 9:
A patient needs to have their endotracheal tube (ETT) changed because the cuff is ruptured. What should you use?- A) Bougie
- B) Airway catheter exchanger
- C) Laryngoscope
- D) Stylet
Question 10:
How do air bubbles in an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample affect the results?- A) Increase PaO2
- B) Increase PCO2
- C) Decrease pH
- D) Decrease HCO3
Question 11:
What precautions should be taken for a patient with hepatitis?- A) Airborne precautions
- B) Droplet precautions
- C) Contact precautions
- D) Standard precautions
Question 12:
While ventilating a patient with an Ambu-bag, the reservoir bag inflates slowly. What could be the cause?- A) Flow is too high
- B) Flow is too low
- C) The bag is leaking
- D) The patient is not exhaling properly
Question 13:
During assessment, you notice the patient’s blood pressure is low. What should you do next?- A) Administer dopamine
- B) Notify the nurse to check the transducer position
- C) Increase IV fluids
- D) Reassess in 15 minutes
Question 14:
A patient on 30% FiO2 has a PaO2 of 220 mmHg. What is the likely reason?- A) ABG machine error
- B) Hyperventilation
- C) Hypoventilation
- D) Normal finding
Question 15:
During suctioning, a low volume and low-pressure alarm is activated. What is the most likely cause?- A) Leak
- B) High suction pressure
- C) Obstructed catheter
- D) Disconnected tubing
Question 16:
Sawtooth waves in a sleep study indicate which phase of sleep?- A) REM
- B) N1
- C) N2
- D) N3
Question 17:
During the pandemic, the hospital brought in a large liquid oxygen container. This is an example of:- A) Resource allocation
- B) Emergency planning
- C) Preparedness
- D) Response
Question 18:
You are working in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) when you notice smoke coming from a nearby room. Upon investigation, you realize there is a fire in the room. What is the appropriate action to take?- A) Evacuate neonates immediately
- B) Call the fire department
- C) Turn off oxygen and remove oxygen cylinders
- D) Close all doors and windows
Question 19:
When sending a stylet to the Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD), it should be bagged in:- A) Red bag
- B) Yellow bag
- C) Blue bag
- D) Green bag
Question 20:
The doctor ordered prone positioning for a patient with ARDS. After positioning the patient, they developed respiratory distress. What should you do?- A) Administer 100% oxygen
- B) Cancel the order
- C) Return the patient to the original position and inform the doctor
- D) Increase the prone positioning duration
Question 21:
A patient in the ER on a non-rebreather mask (NRM) experiences a drop in GCS, and multiple intubation attempts have failed. What should you do?- A) Continue attempting intubation
- B) Call for an anesthesia consult
- C) Switch to a bag-valve mask (BVM) and prepare for a tracheostomy
- D) Administer a sedative and retry intubation
Question 22:
During endotracheal intubation for a patient undergoing abdominal surgery, a broken tooth is discovered that could pose a risk. What should you do?- A) Cancel the surgery
- B) Remove the tooth and proceed with the surgery
- C) Secure the tooth and continue
- D) Inform the dental team to fix the tooth
Question 23:
A patient with a neuromuscular disease has thick secretions. Which type of bronchopulmonary hygiene technique should you use?- A) Chest Physiotherapy (CPT)
- B) Mechanical Insufflation-Exsufflation (MIE)
- C) Incentive Spirometry
- D) Postural Drainage
Question 24:
A patient’s trachea shifts to the left. Which of the following is a possible cause?- A) Atelectasis on the left side
- B) Pneumothorax on the left side
- C) Pleural effusion on the left side
- D) Pulmonary edema
Question 25:
Regarding the P/F ratio, which of the following values indicates the worst condition?- A) 400
- B) 300
- C) 200
- D) 100
Question 26:
What is the primary concern during a recruitment maneuver?- A) Atelectasis
- B) Dynamic compliance
- C) Barotrauma
- D) Hypoventilation
Question 27:
In a mass casualty situation in the ER, which of the following patients would you prioritize?- A) High pulse
- B) Unequal pupils
- C) Tracheal deviation
- D) Contusion on the side area
Question 28:
A 75 kg female patient is receiving volume-controlled ventilation with an FiO2 of 40%, TV: 500 mL, RR: 12. An ABG shows normal results. What would you recommend?- A) Place her on a 40% T-piece and monitor closely
- B) Switch her to SIMV at a rate of 5/min
- C) Maintain the ventilator settings
- D) Place her on CPAP and monitor closely
Question 29:
A patient is on BiPAP with IPAP 14 and EPAP 5. What is the level of ventilation?- A) 9
- B) 14
- C) 5
- D) 19
Question 30:
A sputum culture was ordered. Which of the following is the best way to obtain it?- A) The trap should be connected between the suction catheter and vacuum tubing
- B) The patient should cough deeply and spit into a sterile container
- C) Use of a nasal swab
- D) Collection from a tracheostomy stoma directly
Question 31:
A patient with pneumonia is being treated with tobramycin and gentamicin. Lab results show a creatinine level of 300. What do you suggest?- A) Stop the treatment as tobramycin causes renal damage
- B) Send the patient for renal dialysis
- C) Reduce the dose
- D) Switch to another medication
Question 32:
During a bronchoscopy, the doctor notices the airway is blurry and asks the RT to instill saline to clear the view, but it fails. What should you do?- A) Stop the procedure
- B) Replace the bronchoscope
- C) Check the light source
- D) Check the eyepiece
Question 33:
A chest tube shows no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. What is the most likely cause?- A) Suction pressure too low
- B) Obstruction in the tube
- C) Lung has fully re-expanded
- D) Water seal chamber is empty
Question 34:
Which of the following medications is a first-line treatment for tuberculosis (TB)?- A) Amoxicillin
- B) Azithromycin
- C) Rifampin
- D) Ciprofloxacin
Question 35:
A 28-week premature neonate is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The physician orders surfactant administration. Which medication is most appropriate in this case?- A) Calfactant
- B) Albuterol
- C) Racemic Epinephrine
- D) Ipratropium Bromide
Question 36:
What is the approximate FiO2 delivered by a nasal cannula at a flow rate of 3 L/min?- A) 24%
- B) 28%
- C) 32%
- D) 36%
Question 37:
A 70-year-old male patient is intubated with a size 8 endotracheal tube and is receiving volume-controlled A/C ventilation. Upon assessment, you note that the patient’s cuff pressure is measured at 38 cm H2O. Which of the following would you recommend?- A) Maintain the current cuff pressure
- B) Increase the cuff pressure to > 40 cm H2O
- C) Lower the cuff pressure to < 30 cm H2O
- D) Deflate the cuff completely
Question 38:
A patient experiences post-extubation stridor. What is the recommended treatment?- A) Heliox (Helium-Oxygen mixture)
- B) Normal Saline Nebulization
- C) Dexamethasone (Steroid)
- D) Racemic Epinephrine (Vasoconstriction)
Question 39:
During a mass casualty event, which of the following patients should be triaged with the highest priority?- A) A patient with a fractured femur
- B) A patient with a large laceration and bleeding
- C) A patient with a suspected spinal cord injury
- D) A patient with tracheal deviation
Question 40:
Which of the following safety features is used to prevent the accidental attachment of incorrect regulators to an E cylinder?- A) Pressure relief valve
- B) Pin index system
- C) Color-coding
- D) Cylinder valve
Question 41:
A 55-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with frothy secretions and shortness of breath. A chest X-ray reveals a butterfly pattern, suggesting a condition related to fluid overload. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?- A) Bronchodilator
- B) Furosemide
- C) Antibiotics
- D) Corticosteroids
Question 42:
An infant with percutaneous PaCO2 monitoring is under your care. As a healthcare professional, what should you regularly check and monitor in this patient?- A) Skin integrity
- B) Fluid balance
- C) Respiratory rate
- D) Oxygen saturation
Question 43:
A patient on high-dose steroids develops high blood glucose levels. What is the most appropriate management strategy?- A) Stop steroids immediately
- B) Switch to an inhaled corticosteroid
- C) Start insulin therapy
- D) Reduce steroid dosage gradually
Question 44:
A 65-year-old male patient has just been transported to the ICU after experiencing a significant drop in blood pressure and showing signs of hemodynamic instability. Which is the best device to accurately measure the systemic blood pressure in this hemodynamically unstable patient?- A) Arterial catheter (A-Line)
- B) Sphygmomanometer
- C) Automated blood pressure cuff
- D) Doppler ultrasound
Question 45:
During a bronchoscopy, you notice significant bleeding at the biopsy site. What is the most appropriate immediate action?- A) Administer cold saline lavage
- B) Stop the procedure immediately
- C) Administer adrenaline through the bronchoscope
- D) Apply positive pressure ventilation
Question 46:
A physician ordered the wrong drug prescription, and you administered the treatment. The patient experienced severe adverse effects and subsequently died. Who is responsible for the error?- A) The physician
- B) The respiratory therapist (RT)
- C) All team members
- D) The pharmacist
Question 47:
A patient is using a peak expiratory flow (PEF) meter, and her personal best value is 420 L/min. During a recent test, she achieved 360 L/min. What should the respiratory therapist do in this situation?- A) Add a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) to the plan
- B) Add inhaled corticosteroids to the plan
- C) Continue on the same plan
- D) Recommend a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
Question 48:
During intubation, the physician requests a “bougie.” What is the purpose of this device?- A) To visualize the vocal cords
- B) To facilitate endotracheal tube insertion
- C) To suction secretions
- D) To provide oxygen during intubation
Question 49:
What is the primary route of tuberculosis (TB) transmission?- A) Contact with contaminated surfaces
- B) Inhalation of airborne droplets
- C) Blood transfusion
- D) Ingestion of contaminated food
Question 50:
What is the primary goal of pulmonary rehabilitation for chronic respiratory patients?- A) To cure the underlying disease
- B) To improve exercise tolerance and quality of life
- C) To eliminate oxygen therapy
- D) To prevent hospitalizations
Question 51:
What is the primary function of the epiglottis?- A) To warm and humidify air
- B) To filter out foreign particles
- C) To prevent aspiration of food and liquids
- D) To produce sound
Question 52:
What chest X-ray finding is suggestive of adequate exposure?- A) Black lungs
- B) White heart
- C) Clear visualization of the vertebral bodies
- D) Blurred diaphragm
Question 53:
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR performed by a single rescuer?- A) 15:2
- B) 30:2
- C) 10:1
- D) 5:1
Question 54:
During intubation, the physician requests a “bougie.” What is the purpose of this device?- A) To visualize the vocal cords
- B) To facilitate endotracheal tube insertion
- C) To suction secretions
- D) To provide oxygen during intubation
Question 55:
What is the primary route of tuberculosis (TB) transmission?- A) Contact with contaminated surfaces
- B) Inhalation of airborne droplets
- C) Blood transfusion
- D) Ingestion of contaminated food
Question 56:
A patient is using a peak expiratory flow (PEF) meter, and her personal best value is 420 L/min. During a recent test, she achieved 360 L/min. What should the respiratory therapist do in this situation?- A) Add a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) to the plan
- B) Add inhaled corticosteroids to the plan
- C) Continue on the same plan
- D) Recommend a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
Question 57:
During intubation, the physician requests a “bougie.” What is the purpose of this device?- A) To visualize the vocal cords
- B) To facilitate endotracheal tube insertion
- C) To suction secretions
- D) To provide oxygen during intubation
Question 58:
What is the primary route of tuberculosis (TB) transmission?- A) Contact with contaminated surfaces
- B) Inhalation of airborne droplets
- C) Blood transfusion
- D) Ingestion of contaminated food
Question 59:
What is the primary goal of pulmonary rehabilitation for chronic respiratory patients?- A) To cure the underlying disease
- B) To improve exercise tolerance and quality of life
- C) To eliminate oxygen therapy
- D) To prevent hospitalizations
Question 60:
What is the primary function of the epiglottis?- A) To warm and humidify air
- B) To filter out foreign particles
- C) To prevent aspiration of food and liquids
- D) To produce sound
Question 61:
What chest X-ray finding is suggestive of adequate exposure?- A) Black lungs
- B) White heart
- C) Clear visualization of the vertebral bodies
- D) Blurred diaphragm
Question 62:
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR performed by a single rescuer?- A) 15:2
- B) 30:2
- C) 10:1
- D) 5:1
Question 63:
Which of the following values is NOT decreased in kyphosis?- A) FEV1
- B) Vital Capacity (VC)
- C) Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
- D) Residual Volume (RV)
